Is there a relation between Hamming distance and Euclidean distance? If components of vectors are $\in \{1,2\}$,for example. For $\{0,1\}$ everything is obvious.
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I don't think it is obvious The two concepts are different. Euclidean distance appears only when the code words are mapped into some Euclidean space. Then the Euclidean distance between the points corresponding to the given code words will depend highly on the mapping rule. Consider, e.g., coded modulations. – dfnu Mar 21 '19 at 11:43