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$$\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x^2} = \frac{f''(0)}{2}\quad (f'(0) = 0)$$ It seems quite a rudimentary problem, but I can't find an appropriate solution without using L'hospital's rule and Maclaurin series. Is it possible that a problem can not be solved without them?

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Proof using MVT: let $g(x)=f(x)-\frac 1 2 x^{2}f''(0)$. Then $g''(0)=0$. If we prove the result for $g$ then result for $f$ follows immediately. Now $\frac {g(x)-g(0)} {x^{2}}=\frac {g'(\xi_x)} {x} $for some $\xi_x$ between $0$ and $x$. But $\frac {g'(\xi_x)} {x} =\frac {g'(\xi_x)} {\xi_x} \frac {\xi_x} x \to 0$ because $\frac {\xi_x} x$ is bounded.

  • I used Cauchy Theorem, but this seems more clear – Riddle Aaron Mar 18 '19 at 12:14
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    @RiddleAaron recall that all boils down to Rolle's theorem. Both MVT and GMVT use it with different auxiliary functions. It's just a "game" of going back where you want to go. In the end up to the completeness principle and the definition of limits... – dfnu Mar 18 '19 at 12:17
  • @Matteo Thanks for the advice – Riddle Aaron Mar 18 '19 at 12:19