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I have to find a vector potential for $F = -y \hat{i} + x \hat{j}$

This is what I have done:

We know that, if $\nabla \cdot F = 0$, we can construct the following:

$$F= \nabla\times G$$

Where $G$ is the vector potential we want to find out.

We know what F is, so it is just about doing the following:

$$\frac{\partial G_3}{\partial y} - \frac{\partial G_2}{\partial z} = -y$$

$$\frac{\partial G_1}{\partial z} - \frac{\partial G_3}{\partial x} = x$$

Noting that the partial derivatives with respect to $z$ are zero in this case, we get:

$$G = \frac{-x^2-y^2}{2}+C$$

Where $C$ is just the gradient of any scalar.

I am given a whole list of possible vector potentials:

enter image description here

Now I could use the most brute method: Trial and error with each possible vector potential given, using the equation:

$$G_n = \frac{-x^2-y^2}{2}+C$$

Solving for $C$ and seeing whether it holds.

This is pretty tedious; is there any brightest method?

Thanks.

EDIT

$$\frac{\partial G_2}{\partial z} = y$$

$$\frac{\partial G_1}{\partial z} = x$$

$$\frac{\partial G_2}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial G_1}{\partial y} = 0$$

I get:

$$G = <xz,yz,0>$$

Which indeed satisfies:

$$F= \nabla\times G$$

But this option is not in the list...

Now let's set $G_2 = 0$:

$$\frac{\partial G_3}{\partial y} = -y$$

$$\frac{\partial G_1}{\partial z} - \frac{\partial G_3}{\partial x} = x$$

$$\frac{\partial G_1}{\partial y} = 0$$

I get:

$$G = <0,0,\frac{-x^2 - y^2}{2}>$$

Which indeed satisfies:

$$F= \nabla\times G$$

JD_PM
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    Your assumption that the partial derivatives with respect to $z$ are $0$ is incorrect, and you can clearly see that by seeing that the answers have nonzero partial derivatives with respect to $z$. Take a look at this to see whats going on in the background: http://galileo.math.siu.edu/Courses/251/S12/vpot.pdf . In fact you will find that you can make $G_3 = 0$ by a choice of constant – Hushus46 Mar 24 '19 at 13:45
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    I mean $G_2 = 0$, and the if you want to know which answer is correct it is choice G where $G = <xz,0,-\frac{1}{2}y^2>$ – Hushus46 Mar 24 '19 at 13:53
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    @Hushus46 Thank you, that pdf is really helpful! I will delve into it and if I don't get what is going on I will ping you again. – JD_PM Mar 24 '19 at 14:08
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    Yea sure, let me know. You will see on the last page of the PDF the two exercises to repeat when $G_2 = 0$ and $G_1 = 0$. The point is that there are multiple $G$'s with their $\nabla \times G$ equal to $F$. Also I think there is a typo in the middle of the first page where it is explaining the choice of $H$, it should be $f(x,y,z)$ instead of $f(x,y,x)$ – Hushus46 Mar 24 '19 at 14:10
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    If the difference between any two potentials $G$ has gradient $0$, then those two $G$'s are basically the same and differ by a "constant" in the same sense from one-dimensional calculus that there are multiple choices for $\int f = F +C $ – Hushus46 Mar 24 '19 at 14:14
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    You can also find other ways of finding potentials on here : http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcIII/ConservativeVectorField.aspx – Hushus46 Mar 24 '19 at 14:17
  • @Hushus46 please have a look at my edit. why am I wrong? why is $G = <xz,0,-\frac{1}{2}y^2>$ the answer? – JD_PM Mar 24 '19 at 17:54
  • well you know you are correct because the curl of that is indeed $F$. But that list does not contain all possible answers as you clearly noticed, so you need to find the ones that are on that list. $G=<xz,0,-\frac{1}{2}y^2>$ is one of the answers because I checked the curl by hand and it is $F$ – Hushus46 Mar 24 '19 at 18:02
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    Try the same method, but this time set $G_2 = 0$ instead of $G_3$ and let me know what you get – Hushus46 Mar 24 '19 at 18:03
  • @Hushus46 the thing is that I don't get $G = <xz,0,-\frac{1}{2}y^2>$ but $G = <0,0,\frac{-x^2 - y^2}{2}>$ – JD_PM Mar 24 '19 at 18:37
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    Okay, give me like 15 minutes and I will post an answer to give you clarity – Hushus46 Mar 24 '19 at 18:37
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    took a bit longer to type it up than I expected, but its there now. Let me know if there are any typos or confusions – Hushus46 Mar 24 '19 at 19:31

2 Answers2

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As has been shown to OP already, this link gives a certain method to determine $G$.

If $\mathbf{G}=(G_1,G_2,G_3)$ can be decomposed into another potential $\mathbf{H}=(H_1,H_2,H_3)$ and the gradient of a scalar function $f(x,y,z)$, i.e

$$\mathbf{G} = \mathbf{H} + \nabla f$$

This implies that

$$ \nabla \times \mathbf{G} = \nabla \times (\mathbf{H} + \nabla f) = \nabla \times \mathbf{H} + \nabla \times(\nabla f) = \nabla \times \mathbf{H} + \mathbf{0} = \nabla \times \mathbf{H} $$

Hence $\mathbf{G}$ is not unique and one can make specific choices to determine $\mathbf{G}$.

If we make the choice such that $$ \frac{\partial f}{\partial z} = -H_3$$

Then $\mathbf{G}=(H_1,H_2,H_3) +(\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}, \frac{\partial f}{\partial y},-H_3) = (H_1+\frac{\partial f}{\partial x},H_2+\frac{\partial f}{\partial y},0) = (G_1,G_2,0)$.

So we can choose $\mathbf{G}$ such that it can be either

\begin{align} &(0,G_2,G_3) \text{ or}\\ &(G_1,0,G_3) \text{ or}\\ &(G_1,G_2,0) \end{align}

So let us see what these choices can produce. We have the equations of $\nabla \times \mathbf{G} = \mathbf{F}$,

\begin{align} &\frac{\partial G_3}{\partial y} - \frac{\partial G_2}{\partial z} = -y \\ &\frac{\partial G_1}{\partial z} - \frac{\partial G_3}{\partial x} = x \\ &\frac{\partial G_2}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial G_1}{\partial y} = 0 \\ \end{align}

If $G_1 = 0$, then we have

\begin{align} &\frac{\partial G_3}{\partial y} - \frac{\partial G_2}{\partial z} = -y \\ -&\frac{\partial G_3}{\partial x} = x \Rightarrow G_3 = -\frac{x^2}{2}+C_3(y,z)\\ &\frac{\partial G_2}{\partial x} = 0 \Rightarrow G_2 = C_2(y,z) \\ \end{align}

substituting the last two equations into the first, we get

$$\frac{\partial G_3}{\partial y} - \frac{\partial G_2}{\partial z} = [C_3(y,z)]_y - [C_2(y,z)]_z = -y$$

Here, for simplicity, we can choose $C_3(y,z)=0$, because if $C_2(y,z)=0$ then two components of $\mathbf{G}$ are $0$, which never happens in the given possiblities. So, $$-[C_2(y,z)]_z = -y \Rightarrow C_2(y,z)=yz$$

Then $\boxed{\mathbf{G} = (0,-yz,-\frac{x^2}{2})}$ which can be verified to satisfy $\nabla \times \mathbf{G} = \mathbf{F}$

If $G_2 = 0$, then we have

\begin{align} &\frac{\partial G_3}{\partial y} = -y \Rightarrow G_3 = -\frac{y^2}{2} + C_3(x,z)\\ &\frac{\partial G_1}{\partial z} - \frac{\partial G_3}{\partial x} = x \\ -&\frac{\partial G_1}{\partial y} = 0 \Rightarrow G_1 = C_1(x,z) \\ \end{align}

then we get

$$\frac{\partial G_1}{\partial z} - \frac{\partial G_3}{\partial x} = [C_1(x,z)]_z - [C_3(x,z)]_x = x$$

Here, for simplicity, we can choose $C_3(x,z)=0$, for the same reason being we dont want two components of $\mathbf{G}$ to be $0$ $$[C_1(x,z)]_z = x \Rightarrow C_1(x,z)=xz$$

Then $\boxed{\mathbf{G} = (xz,0,-\frac{y^2}{2})}$ which can be verified to satisfy $\nabla \times \mathbf{G} = \mathbf{F}$

If $G_3 = 0$, then we have

\begin{align} -& \frac{\partial G_2}{\partial z} = -y \Rightarrow G_2 = yz + C_2(x,y)\\ &\frac{\partial G_1}{\partial z} = x \Rightarrow G_1 = xz +C_1(x,y) \\ &\frac{\partial G_2}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial G_1}{\partial y} = 0 \\ \end{align}

then we get

$$\frac{\partial G_2}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial G_1}{\partial y} = [C_2(x,y)]_x - [C_1(x,y)]_y = 0 \Rightarrow [C_2(x,y)]_x = [C_1(x,y)]_y $$

Here, for simplicity, we can choose $C_2(x,y)=C_1(x,y)=0$, and so $\boxed{\mathbf{G} = (xz,yz,0)}$ which can be verified to satisfy $\nabla \times \mathbf{G} = \mathbf{F}$

Of the three boxed solutions, only $\mathbf{G} = (xz,0,-\frac{y^2}{2})$ is on our list, and hence it is our answer.

However, given that we have a list of options, one can arrive to this answer earlier by realizing that certain solutions of the form $(xz, f(y),0)$ will never satisfy the curl equation, so the answer will be in the form$(G_1,0,G_3)$

Hushus46
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You can certainly try to compute a potential for $G$ in order to solve your original problem. One method is described in another answer here. An alternative method, which for this problem would involve finding a primitive of 2-form related to $F$, is described here. However, I don’t think that computing a vector potential is the best way to proceed here. Depending on the method that you use, you’re entirely likely to come up with one that doesn’t resemble any of the possible solutions presented in the problem. After all, just as there’s an arbitrary constant of integration in an ordinary indefinite integral, you can add any irrotational vector field to a vector potential of $F$ and get another one. Instead, you can instead use a fairly simply process of elimination to quickly reject possible solutions and zero in on the correct answer.

Observe first that the possible solutions offered in this problem can be divided into those that have an $xz\mathbf i$ term and those that have an $xz\mathbf j$ term. Taking the latter first, we have $\nabla\times(xz\mathbf j)=-x\mathbf i+z\mathbf k$. To end up with $-y\mathbf i$, the remaining term has to somehow generate $x\mathbf i$, but since the second term in all of the potential answers depends only on $y$, none of them can do this. So, you can eliminate all of the potential answers that have $xz\mathbf j$.

Turning now to the remaining options, $\nabla\times(xz\mathbf i)=x\mathbf j$. As noted previously, the other term of all of the potential answers depends only on $y$, so only its partial derivative with respect to $y$ will survive in the curl. However, when computing the curl, you never take the partial derivative of the $\mathbf j$-term with respect to $y$, so you can eliminate all of those options. Now, you just need to look through the surviving ones for one in which the $y$-derivative of the $\mathbf k$-term is equal to $-y$. That narrows it down to option G, i.e., $xz\mathbf i-\frac12y^2\mathbf k$.

amd
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