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Let $ X \subset \mathbb{P}^n$ be a smooth closed subvariety, and $O(1)$ is the pull-back of the line bundle of $O(1)$ on $\mathbb{P}^n$. Then it is claimed:

$$X \cong \operatorname{Proj}\left(\bigoplus_n H^0\big(X, O(n)\big)\right)\;.$$

This seems quite plausible for me, but I don't know how to show it.

Brian M. Scott
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Li Yutong
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1 Answers1

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This follows from (EGA, II, 4.5.1, (b)) or (Stacks, 23.24.11), since $O(1)$ is ample on $X$.

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    Thank you! That's what I am looking for. I cannot voteup because of lack of reputation, sorry about that. Using (Stacks, 23.24.11), one know it is a open immersion, and because $X$ is projective, the morphism is proper, thus closed, which shows the image should be the whole thing-Add this trivial comments :) – Li Yutong Feb 28 '13 at 02:30