Can somebody help me with this question? The question is to show
$$\vdash P(a) \to \forall x(P(x) \lor \lnot(x=a))$$
using natural deduction.
Here is my attempt:
I think I am going half-way through the question but I can't reach the conclusion.
My proof is right until line 8, but when I want to use the "implication introduction rule" my proof goes wrong.
Edit: I am using the online proof checker from https://proofs.openlogicproject.org/



