Now I study group schemes to understand fundamental properties about semi abelian varieties and generalized jacobian varieties.
Let $G$ be an algebraic group scheme over a field $k$ ($=$ $k$ group schemes of finite type), $H$ an algebraic group sub-scheme. In Milne's online note, the author defines that the quotient $G/H$ is the representable algebraic scheme of the sheaf associated to the presheaf $S \mapsto G(S)/H(S)$, in the "faithfully flat finite type site". (not fppf.) But in Conrad's "semistable reduction for abelian varieties", the author uses the different definition. (It seems for me that he uses the fppf site.)
And so these 2 references define exact sequences in the different way. The former says that a sequence $1 \to G' \xrightarrow{f} G \xrightarrow{g} G'' \to 1$ is exact if $g$ is faithfully flat and $f$ identifies $G'$ to $\ker g$. (The author shows that $g$ is faithfully flat $\iff$ $g$ is surjective $\iff$ $g$ induces $G / \ker g \cong G''$.) Are these two definitions same?
Next, In Serre's "algebraic groups and class fields", the author says that if $k$ is algebraically closed, a sequence of group varieties (= algebraic groups that are varieties = smooth algebraic groups) $1 \to G' \xrightarrow{f} G \xrightarrow{g} G'' \to 1$ is exact iff this is exact on the rational points as abstract groups and it induces the exact sequence of the tangent spaces at $1$. Is this true? I don't know the Weil's foundation, so I don't understand whether this is true for schemes.
And please suggest me some references.
Thank you very much!