I want to generate $n-1$ wrong answers $a_2,\ldots,a_n$ for a multiple choice test given a correct number $a$. The problem is that I don't want the user to be able to guess the correct option with an accuracy of more than $\frac{1}{n}$ if the user doesn't know the correct number. Is that possible and if yes, how?
Ideas
Always draw from the same interval
Ignoring the correct value $a$, just always choose $a_i$ randomly from $[$lower bound, upper bound$]$, e.g. [0,10000]. The problem is that if I ask for e.g. the year of the french revolution ($a=1789$), the user knows that it cannot be e.g. in year 2345. Even if I set the upper bound to the current year, giving the years 110, 720 and 2001 as wrong options will be too easy. Even if the answer isn't a year, a smaller value will be more probable in general.
Draw numbers a bit smaller, larger or around the correct number
If I generate slightly smaller numbers (lets say from the interval $[0.9 \cdot a,a)$) than the correct answer, the user just always chooses the largest one. If I always generate slightly larger ones, $(a,1.1\cdot a]$, the smallest one is always correct. And if I generate numbers around the number, $[0.9 \cdot a,1.1 \cdot a]$, the one in the middle will be more often correct than the others.
Two Step Process
I could first choose a method randomly, 1/3rd of the time I choose smaller, 1/3rd of the time larger and 1/3rd of the time "around" the number. Now I can still break this because if I see that $\frac{\max(a_i)}{min(a_i)} > 1.1$, then I know the last option was chosen and I can choose the middle one. If I change the "around" interval to $[0.95\cdot a,1.05\cdot a]$, the quotient could still be slightly over 1.1. I could use $[0.95\cdot a,0.95\cdot1.1 = 1.045 \cdot a]$ but now $a$ isn't in the center of the interval any more which can be exploited with a uniform draw of random numbers.
Is there any way to create random numbers similar to the correct numbers that don't give any information about it? Maybe I need to use a random number generator that doesn't have a uniform probability in the interval? Or should this exploitability just be factored into the scoring?
P.S.: I guess $0.9\cdot a$ should be $\frac{a}{1.1}$ so that the quotient is the same.