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How can I prove that (p→q)∧(p→r) compound statements and compound statement p→(q∧r) are logically equivalent?

And can I use logical equivalences on this proof?

3 Answers3

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$$(p\implies q) \land (p\implies r)$$

is equivalent to

$$( q \lor \lnot p) \land ( r \lor \lnot p)$$

is equivalent to

$$(q \land r) \lor \lnot p$$

is equivalent to

$$p \implies (q\land r)$$

J. W. Tanner
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$(p→q)∧(p→r) $ is the same as

$(\overline{p} \vee q)\wedge (\overline{p} \vee r)$ which is the same as

$(\overline{p}\vee(\overline{p}\wedge r)\vee(q\wedge\overline{p})\vee(q\wedge r))$

From here, it is clear that if both $\overline{p}$ and $(q\wedge r)$ is false, the complete statement is false. If either is true, then the full statement is true. And so the full statement is the same as the statement $p→(q∧r)$ because $p→(q∧r)$ is the same as $\overline{p} \vee (q\wedge r)$.

user614287
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1

The other answers showed how to use logical equivalences to prove the result. Here is a proof using natural deduction in a Fitch-style proof checker.

enter image description here

The inference rules are listed on the proof checker's page.

They are


Kevin Klement's JavaScript/PHP Fitch-style natural deduction proof editor and checker http://proofs.openlogicproject.org/

Frank Hubeny
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