I was just wondering where the minus sign in the first term of the Taylor expansion of $ \ln(1-x) $ comes from? In wikipedia page and everywhere else $\ln(1-x)$ is given by $$ \ln(1-x) = -x-\dots $$ But assuming $x$ is small and expand around $1$, I got $$ \ln(1-x) \approx \ln(1) + \frac{d(\ln(1-x))}{dx}\bigg\vert_{x=0}[(1-x)-1] \approx 0 + \frac{1}{1-x}\bigg\vert_{x=0}(-1)(-x) = x. $$ Using the definition of Taylor expansion $f(z) \approx f(a) + \frac{df(z)}{dz}\bigg\vert_{z=a}(z-a) $, where here $z=1-x$, $f(z) = \ln(1-z)$ and $a=1$.
I know you can get $\ln(1-x) \approx -x$ by e.g. substitute $x\rightarrow -x$ into the expansion of $\ln(1+x)$ and through other methods etc. But I still don't quite get how you can get the minus sign from Taylor expansion alone. Thanks.