We say that a morphism of schemes $f : Y \to X$ is finite if $X$ may be covered by affine open sets $\text{Spec}(B)$ such that each $f^{-1}(\text{Spec}(B))$ is affine, say of the form $\text{Spec}(A)$, where $A$ is finitely-generated as a $B$-module.
It seems like the natural analogue would then be to say that a morphism of schemes $f : Y \to X$ is of finite type if $X$ may be covered by affine open sets $\text{Spec}(B)$ such that each $f^{-1}(\text{Spec}(B))$ is affine, say of the form $\text{Spec}(A)$, where $A$ is finitely-generated as a $B$-algebra.
However, the usual definition is that $f : Y \to X$ is locally of finite type if $X$ may be covered by affine open sets $\text{Spec}(B)$ such that each $f^{-1}(\text{Spec}(B))$ is covered by affine open sets $\text{Spec}(A)$ where each $A$ is finitely-generated as a $B$-algebra. Then we say that $f : Y \to X$ is of finite type if each $\text{Spec}(B)$ in the previous definition can be covered by finitely many $\text{Spec}(A)$'s with $A$ finitely-generated as a $B$-algebra.
I therefore have two questions.
Question 1: Why can't we simply impose the condition that each $f^{-1}(\text{Spec}(B))$ is an affine open set in the definition of finite type?
Question 2: Why is it worthwhile to distinguish between morphisms that are "locally of finite type" and "of finite type"? In particular, what is an example of a morphism that is locally of finite type but not of finite type?