Consider the wave equation $u_{tt}-\sum a^{ij}u_{x_i}u_{x_j}=0$. Assume that for any $v\in \Bbb{R}^n$, we have $\sum\limits_{i,j} a^{ij}v_iv_j\leq c^2\sum\limits_{k=1}^n v_k^2$. Prove that if $u,v$ are two solutions with the intial data satisfying $u(0,x)=v(0,x)$ for $|x|\geq R$, then $u(t,x)=v(t,x)$ for all $t>0$, $|x|\geq R+ct$.
I don't know how to solve this question exactly. I know that I'm supposed to use the fact that if we have a cone such that at $t=0$, we have $u-v=0$, then $u=v$ throughout the cone. However, we don't have that here. Also, I don't know how to use the condition that $\sum\limits_{i,j} a^{ij}v_iv_j\leq c^2\sum\limits_{k=1}^n v_k^2$. Any hints will be helpful.
UPDATE: We haven't really done in Fourier analysis in that. So hints without assuming Fourier transforms would be very helpful.