I'm not sure if this requires Liouville's theorem or the use of the integral formula for the Taylor coefficients but I cant get either to work.
By the formula for the Taylor coefficients for $f(z^2)$ we have that:
$$\vert a_n\vert = \Big\vert \frac{1}{2 \pi i} \int_{\vert z\vert =R} \frac{f(z^2)}{z^{n+1}} dz\Big\vert \leq \frac{1}{2 \pi} \int_{\vert z \vert =R} \frac{\vert f(z^2) \vert}{\vert z \vert^{n+1}} \vert dz \vert \leq \frac{1}{2 \pi} \int_{\vert z \vert =R} \frac{2\vert f(z) \vert}{\vert z \vert^{n+1}} \vert dz \vert $$
and then this can be bounded by
$$ \frac{1}{2 \pi } \frac{M_f(R)}{R^{n+1}} 2 \pi R = \frac{M_f(R)}{R^{n}} $$
where $M_f(R)$ is the max of $\vert f\vert $ on the circle $\vert z \vert =R$. I had wanted to take the limit as $R \to \infty$ and have that it equals $0$ unless $n=0$ but this isn't clear to me.