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I am a math aficionado unable to find out where is the error in this proof showing that a odd perfect number does not exist. May I get some help?

Suppose $X$ is a perfect number and odd.

At most, $X$ can be divided by all odd numbers until $X/3$:

$1 + 3 + ... + X/3 = X$

We can divide it by $X$, so we get:

$(1 + 3 + ... + X/3)/X = 1$

Therefore, at most, we got the sum of the inverse of all odd numbers until $X/3$, at it must be equal to 1:

$1/3 + 1/5 + 1/7 + 1/9 +...+ 1/(X/3) = 1$

But the sum of the inverse of the infinite series of all odd numbers is at most $1-pi/4$

Therefore, if the largest possible sum of divisors is smaller than one, any other is going to be small too. So there is not odd perfect number.

LocoGris
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    The sum is $\frac 1X+\frac 3X + \dots \frac 13$. Also the sum of the odd reciprocals (all with + sign) diverges by comparison with $\frac 12+\frac 14+\frac 16+\dots=\frac 12(1+\frac 12+\frac 13 +\dots$ – Mark Bennet Apr 30 '19 at 11:38
  • @MarkBennet: That comment does answer the OP's question. Please write it out as an actual answer so that the question does not remain unanswered. – Jose Arnaldo Bebita Dris May 09 '19 at 10:11

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