If $$C_{0} + \frac{C_1}{2} + \cdots+ \frac{C_{n-1}}{n} + \frac{C_{n}}{n+1} = 0\,,$$ prove that $$C_{0} + C_{1}x + \cdots+ C_{n-1}x^{n-1} + C_{n}x^{n} = 0$$ has at least one real root between $0$ and $1$.
I know how to prove the result by using the mean value theorem, but I am not understanding how the result from the mean value theorem allows us to conclude the final result. What I am asking is how does the existence of an $x \in (0,1)$ such that $f'(x) = 0$ mean that there exists a real root between $(0,1)$? All I can conclude from that is that there is an $x \in (0,1)$ such that the slope is the same as a secant line from the endpoints.