Quotient of Lipschitz functions is lipschitz

Question

I wanna show that the quotient of two Lipschitz functions is Lipschitz. I feel like it should fall out with some kind of basic inequility argument but am struggling with the details. Anyone wanna help?

score 1 · Answer 1 · answered May 02 '19 at 20:38

1

$f(x)\equiv 1$ and $g(x)=x$ are Lipschitz, but $f(x)/g(x)=1/x$ is not.

answered May 02 '19 at 20:38

angryavian

89,882

Thanks! Figured out the proof of what I want :) – Tyler Hills May 02 '19 at 20:42

Quotient of Lipschitz functions is lipschitz

1 Answers1