Problem
Show $\frac{1-\cos \left((n-1)\pi/n\right)}{1-\cos \left(\pi/n\right)} \approx 4n^2/\pi^2$
Try
I have noticed that the numerator can be approximated
$$ 1-\cos \left((n-1)\pi/n\right) \approx 2 $$
and the denominator can be approximated
$$ \begin{aligned} 1 - \cos(\pi/n) &= (\pi/n)^2/2 - (\pi/n)^4/24 + \cdots \\ &\approx \pi^2 n^2/2 \end{aligned} $$
Thus we have the approximation
$$ \frac{1-\cos \left((n-1)\pi/n\right)}{1-\cos \left(\pi/n\right)} \approx 4n^2/\pi^2 $$
However, I feel dubious about this approximation assumes the independence of numerator and denominator, but they depend on each other through $n$.
So is there rigorous approach to here?
Any help will be appreciated.