pdf: $ f(x) = \frac{e^{-x}}{(1+e^{-x})^2} $
Find the mean of the distribution using: $ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} xf(x) \ \mathrm{d}x $
Is it possible?
I have run the integral in a calculator only to find out that it diverges.
I got: $ \int x\frac{e^{-x}}{(1+e^{-x})^2} \ \mathrm{d}x = \frac{x}{1+e^{-x}}-\ln \left|e^{-x}+1\right|+C $
which should basically diverge. Am I missing something here?