You consider the functions $f : \mathbb R \to \mathbb R, f(x) = x^2$, and $g : (0,\infty) \to \mathbb R, g(x) = e^{2\ln x}$. Note that $\ln x$ does not exist for $x \le 0$. In particular, $\ln 0$ does not exist. You write "$\ln 0$ approaches $-\infty$", but in this form it does not make sense. What you can say is that $\lim_{x \to 0+} \ln x = -\infty$ and therefore $\lim_{x \to 0+} g(x) = 0$.
We have $f(x) = g(x)$ for $x > 0$. In this situation, without looking at the concrete definitions of $f, g$, we can be sure that $\lim_{x \to 0+} f(x)$ exists if and only $\lim_{x \to 0+} g(x)$ exists, and if these limits exist, they are equal. In the concrete case $\lim_{x \to 0+} x^2 = 0$, hence also $\lim_{x \to 0+} e^{2\ln x} = 0$. For this conclusion we do not need to know that $\lim_{x \to 0+} \ln x = -\infty$ and $\lim_{y \to -\infty} e^{2y} = 0$.
I guess that your wording "absolute zero" means $f(0) = 0$ in contrast to "approaching zero" which means $\lim_{x \to 0+} g(x) = 0$. But be aware that this causes confusion, in particular "absolute zero" is really opaque.