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I know that axioms define a set of legal actions that we can perform on statements, by which those statements transform into other statements that are necessarily true.

Suppose that $s_1$ is an statement that its truthfulness is to be determined (aka get proved true). Then I do this:

  1. I apply axiom $a_1$ on $s_1$ to get statement $s_2$. $s_2$ is unknown to be true.
  2. Apply $a_2$ to get $s_3$, which its truthfulness is still unknown.
  3. ...
  4. Apply $a_n$ to get $s_0$, but now $s_0$ is known to be true.

Is this how proofs work? Can I now call it a Q.E.D?

In other words, is the underlying assumption of the logical/mathematical proving system this:

  • A statement $s_i$ is true if it can reach any statement that we know is true?

In other words (2):

  • if $\mathcal{T}$ is the exhaustive set of true statements that we know that they are true,
  • and if $\mathcal{S}_i = \{s_{i+1}, s_{i+2}, \ldots, s_{i+n}\}$ is the set of possible statements that we could get from $s_i$ after applying an indefinite number of axioms on,

then can we say that $s_i$ is proven only if $\mathcal{S}_i \cap \mathcal{T} \ne \emptyset$? (else, we don't know if $s_i$ is true).

In other words (3):

  • A false statement, $f_i$ can never reach a true statement, no matter how many times we apply our axioms on. So $\mathcal{F}_i \cap \mathcal{T} = \emptyset$.

Is what I am saying correct? Is that the fundamental thinking used in proofs?

caveman
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  • All mathematical theorems are of the form "IF ... THEN ....". Some of the IFs are axioms (notably, the Axiom of Choice or an equivalent), and some are other theorems.

    However, the answer to "A statement $s_{i}$ is true if it can reach any statement that we know is true?" is, No. See Godel's Incompleteness Theorems.

    – avs May 21 '19 at 15:54
  • I think your counter argument by Godel's Incomp. Th. applies only if I had said "A statement $s_i$ is true only if it can reach any statement that we know is true". But since I didn't have that "only" there, then I guess I am right. Do you agree? Or am I missing some greater wisdom in your post? – caveman May 21 '19 at 17:01
  • No, I may have misunderstood. A deeper discussion, I think, would require operating with the concept of a well-formed formula in first-order logic. – avs May 21 '19 at 17:41

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