If $\mathfrak{g}$ is a semisimple Lie algebra, is it true that $$ [\mathfrak{g}, \mathfrak{g}] = \mathfrak{g}.$$
Obviously the derived ideals must stabilize somewhere, but I don't see why $D^{1}(\mathfrak{g}) = \mathfrak{g}$. It seemed my professor was stating this result as a consequence of Weyl's Theorem, but I am not sure why this should follow (or even if this is true).