Let $(H, m, u, \Delta, \epsilon, S)$ be a Hopf algebra and $h\in H$. Do we have the equality
$$u\epsilon(h)\otimes h = h$$
Or maybe put $1\otimes h$ on the RHS or something else "isomorphic"?
EDIT: To give the context: this is what the exercise asks me to prove:
$$\sum_{(h)} h_{(1)}S(h_{(2)})\otimes h_{(3)} = h$$
My solution is: $$\sum_{(h)} h_{(1)}S(h_{(2)})\otimes h_{(3)} \\= ((m \circ(I\otimes S))\otimes I)(\Delta \otimes I) (h) \\= (m\circ (I\otimes S)\circ \Delta) \otimes I (h) \\= u\epsilon (h) \otimes h $$
Now the step I would need to make is the one in the title. Or have I already made a mistake in my calculations?
EDIT2: I see I made the mistake: $\Delta_2$ should be $(I\otimes\Delta)\Delta$ so what we are actually left with is
$$(u\epsilon \otimes I) \Delta(h)$$
But how does this simplify to $h$ (or $h\otimes 1 \otimes 1$ or something like that)?
EDIT3 Ok, now I see it:
$$(u\epsilon \otimes I) \Delta(h) = \sum_{(h)} \epsilon(h_{(1)})h_{(2)} = h$$ by the counital property as mentioned. (Or maybe you put the tensor product in there or not; there's the natural isomorphism $\mathbb{K}\otimes H \simeq H$, but I guess that goes away when you multiply: $1\otimes h = 1h = h$).
Thank you very much!