I was just giving my answer a final polish edit when N.S. posted; our proofs are essentially the same, though I have fleshed out a few details.
Perhaps someone will find it useful.
If
$\forall \epsilon > 0 \exists z \in \Bbb C, \; \vert f(z) \vert < \epsilon \tag 1$
is not true, then
$\exists \epsilon > 0 \forall z \in \Bbb C, \; \vert f(z) \vert \ge \epsilon \tag 2$
is true.
Thus
$g(z) = \dfrac{1}{f(z)} \tag 3$
is a well-defined entire function, and
$\forall z \in \Bbb C, \; \vert g(z) \vert = \dfrac{1}{\vert f(z) \vert} \le \dfrac{1}{\epsilon}; \tag 4$
thus $g(z)$ is a bounded entire function, hence constant by Liouville's theorem; hence $f(z)$ must be constant as well; in fact via (1),
$\forall \epsilon > 0 \forall z \in \Bbb C, \; \vert f(z) \vert < \epsilon \Longrightarrow \forall z \in \Bbb C, \; f(z) = 0; \tag 5$
that is, $f(z)$ is identically zero.
The hypothesis $f(1) = 2f(0)$ is not necessary to attain this result.