The textbook solution just says that there is a predicate which satisfies those conditions. Wouldn't this be false since if the base case doesn't hold then by induction principle its false? Is there an example where $P(1)$ is False, and $(\forall k\geq 1)(P(k)\implies P(k+1))$ is True?
Asked
Active
Viewed 39 times
2 Answers
2
Try $$k>42$$ or try $$ k^3-k+1 \text{ is a multiple of }3$$ or try $$ \text{There exists an even $m$ with $2<m<k$ that is not the sum of two primes}.$$
Hagen von Eitzen
- 374,180
1
You could try $n\gt n$ or $n=n+1$ which are false for all $n$.
The point is that you need the base case to found the induction. Otherwise you can prove anything (ie all the consequences of a false statement)
Mark Bennet
- 100,194