I was struggling a little bit with the following question.
Let $A$ and $B$ be two non-empty sets and $f:A \times B \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$. Then it holds $\sup_{y\in Y}\left(\inf_{x\in X}f(x,y)\right)\leq \inf_{x\in X}\left(\sup_{y\in Y}f(x,y)\right)$.
Now, what I was wondering about is when exactly we have equality above, i.e. $\sup_{y\in Y}\left(\inf_{x\in X}f(x,y)\right)= \inf_{x\in X}\left(\sup_{y\in Y}f(x,y)\right)$.
Are there any theorems that give us conditions under which this holds?
I would appreciate your help.
Remember - a $\sup(A)$ need not be in $A$.
– cirpis Jun 15 '19 at 11:17For the bell curve family you propose though, it would be the constant function, since the highest point gets dragged through by translation. But this is pure coincidence. May I suggest we more to a chatroom for extended discussion?
– cirpis Jun 15 '19 at 11:29