I was fiddling around with the definition of limits at infinity and believe I have found a statement that is equivalent to the definition.
So the question is this: are the following two statements equivalent?
(1) $\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}f\left(x\right)=L$
(2) $\exists c>0\exists M>0\left(\sup\left\{ \left|x\left(f\left(x\right)-L\right)\right|:x\geq c\right\} \leq M\right)$