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When we know

  • $a \leq b - c$
  • $c\geq d$,

then $a \leq b - d$ holds?

If so, why does it?

mallea
  • 829

2 Answers2

2

Hint:

$c\ge d \iff c-d\ge 0 \iff 0\le c-d$.

Add that last inequality to $a\le b-c$.

J. W. Tanner
  • 60,406
0

I think a weighing balance is a good analogy for this sort of thing.

Imagine keeping two weights on two pans of the balance. Let one of them be $a$ and the other be $b-c$. Now this balance is either equal or tilted more towards $b-c$. This is the first result we have.

Now if we change the weights to $c$ and $d$, the balance tilts towards $c$. This is our second result.

Now imagine putting 2 weights $b$ in two pans. The balance would be in equilibrium. Now change it to $b-c$ and $b-d$. This is the same as taking away weights $c$ and $d$ from the two pans. Now a greater weight removed will lighten the pan more so this means $b-d$ will be greater than or equal to $b-c$.

Since $b-c$ was itself greater than or equal to $a$ so $b-d$ will be too.