My friend and I are theorizing whether or not it is always better to make a one-time payment into a fonds, stock title or whatever instead of a savings plan IF the total interest over a period of time is positive. Example:
Here, we have a total positive interest of 3.5% on average.
Now how to prove it? Here is my approach:
$$(I): R_{oneTime} = X \cdot(1+i)^n$$ $$(II): R_{multiple = \frac{X}{n}\cdot\sum_{k=1}^{n}(1+i)^k}$$
where I substitute $(1+r) = z > 1$ (remember the average interest ought to be positive) for convenience and $i$ is the interest-rate, $X$ is the initial payment and $n$ is the number of years.
I use the geometric series formula to convert: $$(II)': R_{multiple} = \frac{X}{n}\cdot\frac{z-z^{n+1}}{1-z}$$
By setting $(I) \stackrel{?}{>} (II)'$ I get: $$z^n \stackrel{?}{>}\frac{1}{n}\cdot\frac{z-z^{n+1}}{1-z}$$
and that's about it. I tried various approaches to prove that the relation holds (or not) for all $n > 1$ and $z>1$ but I cannot get a result.
What do you suggest for a solution?
