Suppose I have a PDE
$$F(x)\cdot \nabla f(x) = 0 $$
with $f:\mathbb{R}^n\mapsto \mathbb{R}$ and $F:\mathbb{R}^n\mapsto \mathbb{R}^n$ and $F\in C^\infty$ and$f$ is unknown and has appropriate boundary/initial conditions. Further suppose that
$$\nabla\cdot F \equiv 0$$
Consider a variable change
$$\tilde{f} := f\circ \eta^{-1}, \quad f = \tilde{f}\circ \eta $$ such that $$|D\eta|(x) = 1, \ \forall x\in\mathbb{R}^n$$ and furthermore $$(D\eta)^{-1} = D\eta^{-1} = (D\eta)^T$$ So that $\eta$ is some smooth, invertible, orthogonal transformation whose Jacobian $D\eta$ has determinant equal to 1. Then it follows $$F(x) \cdot (D\eta)^T (\nabla \tilde{f} \circ\eta) = 0$$ or equivalently $$\bigg[[(D\eta)F]\circ \eta^{-1}(x)\bigg] \cdot \nabla \tilde{f} = 0$$ Question:
Is it necessarily true that the divergence free property $$\nabla \cdot \bigg[[(D\eta)F]\circ \eta^{-1}\bigg] \equiv 0$$ is preserved? If not, what conditions can we impose on $\eta$ to make this hold? This post might help, but I am still struggling to prove it Divergence of matrix-vector product