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I'm studying measure theory from the book Real Analysis by H. Royden & P. Fitzpatrick. I'm stuck at the question 19 of the chapter 2.

The question is:

Let $E$ has finite outer measure. If $E$ is not measurable, then there is an open set $O$ containing $E$ that has finite measure and for which $m^*(O\setminus E) > m^*(O) - m^*(E)$

Applying the definition of measurability, i get a set satisfying the inequality but cannot find an open set.

PS: I've found a duplicate but it has no answers. So i decided to ask again.

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