I know that this is a trivial question, but I have never done any serious proofs before and therefore I am a complete novice when it comes to that part of math.
Anyhow, I used the "prove by contradiction" technique and my proof is the following:
Proof:
We use proof by contradiction. Suppose that there exists an integer $n > 0$ for which $a^n$ is even, with $a$ being an odd integer larger than $0$.
We notice that if it is indeed even $a^n$ can be written as $(2k)^n$ with $k$ being any positive integer.
Now let's look at possible values of $n$. If $n$ is $1$ then we already have a contradiction, because if $a^1$ is even, which is stated in the problem, $a$ has to be even as well. We conclude that $n$ has to be larger than $1$. Again, we write $a^n$ as $(2k)^n$ and we realize that, for us to get the value of $a$ and check if it's even we have to take the $n$th root of $a^n$. We do exactly that and we reach the following: $a = 2k$ which represents a contradiction.
Therefore, we have proved that if $a^n$ is even, so is $a$. $QED$
Any feedback on this proof and its validity would be highly appreciated.