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Hello fellow integral enthusiasts,

today, by accident, I derived the following formula for Apéry's constant (which is $\zeta(3)$ where $\zeta$ is the Riemann zeta function) $$\zeta(3)=\frac{\pi^3}{28}\prod_{n=1}^\infty \ln(1+1/n)(n+1/2)$$

Numerically, I obtain $\zeta(3)=1.1998$ using a million product terms, although the correct result should be $\zeta(3)=1.2021$. I am not 100% sure if the deviation is just due to numerical precision issues.

My derivation starts with the integral $$\int_0^\pi dt \frac{t(\pi-t)}{\sin(t)}$$ I use the substitution $t=\pi/2+x$, then symmetry of the integrand, and then the infinite product formula for the cosine. Then I interchange product and integral (which I hope is okay). On the other hand, a solution to the above integral which contains $\zeta(3)$ is given here (after substitution $\pi x=t$). Equating both evaluations of the integral yields the product formula for $\zeta(3)$.

Questions:

a) Is the formula correct?

b) Do you have another derivation for it?

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    You used the integral of the product is the product of the integrals? That isn't true for two integrals, let alone infinitely many. Since you came so close numerically, for all I know, it's true in this case, but it will take some justification. – saulspatz Jul 08 '19 at 21:41
  • Mathematica gives your product as $\approx 1.19978$ while $\zeta(3)\approx 1.20205$. – Somos Jul 08 '19 at 21:47
  • @saulspatz You are right. That is not true in general. Maybe the formula is just close by coincidence, which would be quite funny :) – thomasfermi Jul 08 '19 at 22:05

2 Answers2

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I think your problem lies in the interchanging of the product and the integral. Even if it wasn't an infinite product, the interchanging would still be invalid. Here's a simple example:

$$\int_0^1x\sin x\ dx\approx 0.30116867894$$ while $$\left(\int_0^1xdx\right)\left(\int_0^1 \sin x\ dx\right)\approx 0.229848847066,$$ so those are obviously not the same.

Although $$\int \sum_{i}f_i(x)\ dx=\sum_{i}\int f_i(x)dx$$ holds under special circumstances, very rarely (if ever) does $$\int\prod_{i}f_i(x)\ dx=\prod_i \int f_i(x)dx$$ hold.

clathratus
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If you want an infinite product involving $\zeta(3)$, I suggest the starting formula $$\frac1{\sin\pi x}=\frac1\pi\sum_{k\in\Bbb Z}\frac{(-1)^k}{k+x},$$ from which you can show that $$\frac{\pi}{\sin\pi x}=\frac1x+\sum_{k\ge1}(-1)^k\frac{2x}{x^2-k^2}.$$ Hence, multiplying both sides by $x-x^2$ and integrating over $[0,1]$, $$\begin{align} \frac{7\zeta(3)}{\pi^2}&=\int_0^1\frac{x(1-x)}{x}dx+2\sum_{k\ge1}(-1)^k\int_0^1\frac{x^2(1-x)}{x^2-k^2}dx\\ &=\frac12+2\int_0^1\frac{x^2(1-x)}{1-x^2}dx+2\sum_{k\ge2}(-1)^k\int_0^1\frac{x^2(1-x)}{x^2-k^2}dx\\ &=-\frac12+2\ln2+2\sum_{k\ge2}(-1)^k\int_0^1\frac{x^2(1-x)}{x^2-k^2}dx. \end{align}$$ The final integral is a little tedious, but its value (after a lot of simplification) ends up being $$\int_0^1\frac{x^2(1-x)}{x^2-k^2}dx=\ln\left[\sqrt{e}\left(\frac{j(k)}{\sqrt{j(k+1)j(k-1)}}\right)^k\right]$$ where $j(x)=x^x$. With this and the definition $e_1(k)=\sqrt{e}\left(\tfrac{j(k)}{\sqrt{j(k+1)j(k-1)}}\right)^k$, we see that $$\begin{align} \frac{7\zeta(3)}{2\pi^2}+\frac14-\ln2&=\sum_{k\ge2}(-1)^k\ln\left[e_1(k)\right]\\ &=\sum_{k\ge2}\ln\left[e_1(k)^{(-1)^k}\right]\\ &=\sum_{k\ge2}\ln\left[e_2(k)\right]\\ &=\ln\left[\prod_{k\ge2}e_2(k)\right]. \end{align}$$ Thus the marvelous product $$\prod_{k\ge2}e^{(-1)^k/2}\left(\frac{j(k)}{\sqrt{j(k+1)j(k-1)}}\right)^{(-1)^kk}=\frac12\exp\left[\frac{7\zeta(3)}{2\pi^2}+\frac14\right].$$

clathratus
  • 17,161