Hello fellow integral enthusiasts,
today, by accident, I derived the following formula for Apéry's constant (which is $\zeta(3)$ where $\zeta$ is the Riemann zeta function) $$\zeta(3)=\frac{\pi^3}{28}\prod_{n=1}^\infty \ln(1+1/n)(n+1/2)$$
Numerically, I obtain $\zeta(3)=1.1998$ using a million product terms, although the correct result should be $\zeta(3)=1.2021$. I am not 100% sure if the deviation is just due to numerical precision issues.
My derivation starts with the integral $$\int_0^\pi dt \frac{t(\pi-t)}{\sin(t)}$$ I use the substitution $t=\pi/2+x$, then symmetry of the integrand, and then the infinite product formula for the cosine. Then I interchange product and integral (which I hope is okay). On the other hand, a solution to the above integral which contains $\zeta(3)$ is given here (after substitution $\pi x=t$). Equating both evaluations of the integral yields the product formula for $\zeta(3)$.
Questions:
a) Is the formula correct?
b) Do you have another derivation for it?