This question is probably pretty stupid, but I can't figure it out so...
I'm trying to read Gelfand and Fomin's "Calculus of Variations" and on page 12, for some functional $J$ on a normed vector space $S$ they first define: $$\Delta J [y;h] = J[y+h] - J[y], y,h\in S$$ and then say if we can write: $$\Delta J[y;h] = \delta J[y;h]+ \epsilon ||h||$$ where $\delta J$ is a functional linear in $h$ and $\lim_{||h||\to 0} \epsilon = 0$, then we call $\delta J[y;h]$ the variation of $J$ at $y$. Quick sanity check for myself: in general, $\epsilon$ is a functional of $h$, right? Why don't we write: $$\Delta J[y;h] = \delta J[y;h] + \epsilon[y;h] ||h||?$$ Anyway, a few pages later, in the proof of theorem 2, they assert that since $\lim_{||h||\to 0} \epsilon =0 $ then there must exist some $\delta$ s.t. $\forall h \in S$ s.t. $||h||<\delta$ we must have that the sign of $\delta J[y;h]$ is the same as the sign of $\Delta J[y;h]$. Why is this the case?