Let $V$ be a vector space, $\mathcal B=\{w_1,\dots,w_k\}$ a orthonormal basis for $V$, and let $T=w_1^\star\otimes\dots\otimes w_k^\star\in\mathcal L^k(V)$.
I don't understand why is this equivalence true: $$w_1^\star\wedge\dots\wedge w_k^\star(w_1,\dots,w_k)=\frac 1 {k!}\sum_{\sigma\in S^k}(w_1^\star\otimes\dots\otimes w_k^\star)^\sigma(w_1,\dots,w_k)$$
Actually, I was sure that the equivalence was $$w_1^\star\wedge\dots\wedge w_k^\star(w_1,\dots,w_k)=\sum_{\sigma\in S^k}(w_1^\star\otimes\dots\otimes w_k^\star)^\sigma(w_1,\dots,w_k)$$ and this made sense to me since $w_1^\star\wedge\dots\wedge w_k^\star(w_1,\dots,w_k)=\mathrm{Det}|w_1,\dots,w_k|=1$, and $(w_1^\star\otimes\dots\otimes w_k^\star)^\sigma(w_1,\dots,w_k)=1$ if and only if $\sigma$ is the identity, otherwise is equal to zero (so the sum is equal to $1$).
Can you tell me where I'm wrong? Thank you in advance