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Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1$ (standard setting for commutative algebra). Consider the ring of polynomials $R[T_1,...,T_n]$.

For $m \le n$ let $f_1 ,...,f_m \in R[T_1,...,T_n]$.

Define $J(f_1,...,f_m):= \det(\partial f_i/\partial T_i)_{ij}$

Assume that for every maximal ideal $\mathfrak{m}$ of $R$ for $J$ in the case $m < n$ is, that if $J$ is the ideal of the $m \times m$ minors of $M = (\partial f_i / \partial T_j)_{ij}$ and $I=(f_1,\ldots,f_m)$ then $J + I = R[T_1,\ldots,T_n] = A$.

$J(f_1,...,f_m)$ doesn't vanish in $R[T_1,...,T_n] \otimes_R R/\mathfrak{m}=(R/\mathfrak{m})[T_1,...,T_n]$.

How to conclude that in that case the induced ring $B:=R[T_1,...,T_n]/(f_1,...,f_m)$ is flat over $R$?

Remark: This statement was mentioned in J. Milne's Etale Cohomology (page 23) and the argument was only sketched as follows:

Use iteratively Prop. 2.5: Let $A$ be a flat $R$-algebra and $a \in A$. Then $A/(a)$ is a flat $R$-algebra if for every maximal prime ideal $\mathfrak{m}$ of $R$ the image of $a$ under $A \to A/\mathfrak{m}$ is a non zero divisor in $A/\mathfrak{m}$.

I don't understand how this argument helps:

Applying this proposition to $J$ gives (since $(R/\mathfrak{m})[T_1,...,T_n]$ has no zero divisors other then $0$, and $J$ by assumption is not zero) that $R[T_1,...,T_n]/J$ is flat over $R$. But why does this imply that $R[T_1,...,T_n]/(f_1,...,f_m)$ is flat over $R$?

user267839
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1 Answers1

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$\newcommand{\ideal}[1]{\mathfrak{#1}}\newcommand{\tensor}{\otimes}$ The correct condition for $J$ in the case $m < n$ is, that if $J$ is the ideal of the $m \times m$ minors of $M = (\partial f_i / \partial T_j)_{ij}$ and $I=(f_1,\ldots,f_m)$ then $J + I = R[T_1,\ldots,T_n] = A$.

If $B = A/I$ we want to show for all maximal ideals $\ideal{n} \subseteq A$ and $\ideal{p} = \ideal{n} \cap R$ the extension $B_\ideal{n}/R_\ideal{p}$ is flat. For $\ideal{n} \not\supseteq I$ this is true, as $B_\ideal{n} = 0$. So only the $\ideal{n} \supseteq I$ remain.

Calling $k = k(\ideal{p}) = R_\ideal{p}/\ideal{p} R_\ideal{p}$ we have to consider the rings $B_p = A/(f_1,\ldots,f_p)$ and their base changes $C_p = (B_p)_\ideal{n} \tensor_R k(\ideal{p}) = (k[T_1,\ldots,T_n]/(\bar{f}_1,\ldots,\bar{f}_p))_\ideal{n}$ where $\bar{f}$ is the image in $A \tensor_R k$ of $f \in A$.

Now, the key to the further argument is the observation, that because of the condition on the minors of $M$, the polynomials $\bar{f}_1,\ldots,\bar{f_p}$ define a nonsingular variety in $\mathrm{spec}(k[T_1,\ldots,T_n])$ (the Jacobian $(\partial f_i/\partial T_j)_{{i=1,\ldots,p}\atop {j=1,\ldots,n}} \tensor_R k$ has full rank $p$ at $\ideal{n}$). So $C_p$ is an integral domain and $\bar{f}_{p+1}$ is a non-zero divisor in $C_p$ because it is not contained in the ideal $(\bar{f}_1,\ldots,\bar{f}_p)$.

So by the proposition 2.5 cited, as $(B_0)_\ideal{n} = A_\ideal{n}$ is $R_\ideal{p}$-flat, so is $(B_1)_\ideal{n} = (B_0)_\ideal{n}/(f_1)$ and finally, by induction also $(B_m)_\ideal{n} = B_\ideal{n}$.

The correct version of proposition 2.5 is:

Let $B$ be a flat $A$-algebra and consider $b \in B$. If the image of $b$ in $B \tensor_A k(\ideal{n} \cap A)$ for all $\ideal{n} \subseteq B$, maximal, is a non-zero-divisor, then $B/bB$ is a flat $A$-algebra.

  • What do you mean by "the correct condition"? A sufficient condition in order to get that $A/I$ is $R$-flat? – user26857 Jul 14 '19 at 19:31
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    @user26857 I used the term indeed totally informally, to mean a generalization of the condition stated by the OP, that gives a sufficient condition also for $m < n$. – Jürgen Böhm Jul 14 '19 at 19:36
  • I am a little confused now: I'd expect to get the OP's condition for $m=n$, but I can't see how. – user26857 Jul 14 '19 at 19:39
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    @user26857 At the moment, I can't see the equivalence, if it exists anyhow, myself. I have to admit, that I seemingly only glanced too slightly over the exact wording in the post of the OP and substituted from memory what was stated on p.23 line 4 from above in Milne's "Etale cohomology". Note too, that Proposition 2.5 in Milne's book is stated not entirely correctly, see https://mathoverflow.net/questions/104316/milne-etale-cohomology-mistake-in-proposition-2-5 – Jürgen Böhm Jul 14 '19 at 19:56
  • Mumford says that we have to check that the rank of Jacobian matrix is maximal modulo every prime ideal of $A/I$, that is, that there is a non-zero maximal minor modulo every prime ideal of $A/I$, and this is equivalent to $J+I=A$. – user26857 Jul 14 '19 at 20:59
  • Hi, thank you for the detailed answer. One step seems unclear to me: With Jacobian criterion (right?) you deduce that $Spec(C_p)= Spec(k[T_1,\ldots,T_n]/\bar{f}_1,\ldots,\bar{f_p})$ is non singular variety, therefore every stalk of $C_p$ is regular local ring. But why does it imply that $C_p$ is *integral domain*? In https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Regular_local_ring is not said that local regular rings are integral domains. Or do I oversee something? – user267839 Jul 14 '19 at 21:29
  • @KarlPeter It is a standard property of regular local rings to be integral domains (see Lemma 11.23 of Atiyah/Macdonald "Introduction to Commutative Algebra"). The proof uses, that the tangent cone $\mathrm{gr}_\mathfrak{m} A = k[T_1,\ldots,T_n]$ is integral from which one concludes, that $A$ itself is integral. – Jürgen Böhm Jul 14 '19 at 21:36