Precisely, why is multiplicative identity defined to be $IA=AI=A$ why both sides should work why not something like $AI=A$ ? Is there an underlying advantage?
Asked
Active
Viewed 690 times
2
1 Answers
1
The use of category theory may make this clearer. Suppose we have a category of objects $\, V_1, V_2, V_3, \dots\,$ An $\,n \times m\,$ matrix $\,A\,$ is an arrow from $\,V_m\,$ to $\, V_n.\,$ Matrix multiplication is only defined between compatible matrices. That is, If $\,B\,$ is an arrow from $\,V_n\,$ to $\,V_k\,$ then the matrix product $\,B A\,$ is an arrow from $\,V_m\,$ to $\,V_k.\,$ Each object $\,V_n$ has a unique identity arrow denoted by $\,I_n\,$ which is the $\,n \times n\,$ identity matrix. This gives us the identity $\, A = AI_m = I_nA.\,$ The two identity arrows are not the same unless $\,n=m.\,$
Somos
- 35,251
- 3
- 30
- 76
-
I honestly don't see how the use of category theory makes this any "clearer" than the bare linear algebra facts would... – Jul 16 '19 at 18:28
However, if the underlying structure is not a field, I would suppose that only one equality is not sufficient (I'll try to sketch a counterexample).
– TZakrevskiy Jul 16 '19 at 09:01