I am confused on the following theorem. Let X be a space. Then X is locally compact Hausdorff if and only if there exists a space Y satisfying the following conditions: (1) X is a subspace of Y (2) The set $Y-X$ consists of a single point. (3) Y is a compact Hausdorff space.
Consider $\mathbb{R}$ under the usual topology and the subspace topology on $(0,1)$. The interval $(0,1)$ is locally compact, however the compactification requires two points, namely $0$ and $1$. Therefore $Y - (0,1)$ will consist of 2 points not one. I am very confused, where did I go wrong?
Also, I am having trouble showing that the compactification of $\mathbb{R}$ is homomorphic to $S_{1}$. I can show that the circle is compact and Hausdorff under the supspace topology of $\mathbb{R}^2$ where $\mathbb{R}^2$ is equipped with the topology that is induced by the Euclidean metric. But I need a continuous function from $\mathbb{R}$ into the circle.