We say that a sequence $(U_n)_{n \in \Bbb N} \subset \mathbb{R}$ is Fibonacci if it satisfies $\ U_{n+2} = U_{n+1} + U_n, \ \forall n \in \mathbb{N}$. Let $F$ be the set of all Fibonacci sequences.
We have the function $f: F \to \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}$ that exists: $f(U_n) = (U_0,U_1)$
We must demonstrate that $f$ is a linear isomorphism between $F$ and $\Bbb R \times \Bbb R$.
It's it easy to show that $f$ is a linear map.
In order to prove that it is an isomorphism, we must demonstrate also that $f$ is one-to-one and and onto. For the injectivity of $f$, we have $f$ is a linear map so all we have to show is that $\operatorname{ker}(f) = \{0 \}$.
Let $U_n \in \operatorname{ker}(f)$: then
$$
f(U_n) =(0,0) = (U_0,U_1)
$$
since if $n=2:\ U_2 = 0 + 0$ and by double recurrence: $U_{n+1} = U_n = 0$ - so it's easy to show that $U_{n+2} =U_{n+1}= 0$ (the hypothesis of the exercise). Now, since $U_n = 0$ we have $\operatorname{ker}(f)= \{0\}$
then $f$ is one to one.
To prove the surjectivity of $f$ we must show that $\operatorname{Im}(f) = \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}$: now the inclusion $\operatorname{Im}(f) \subseteq \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}$ is trivially true but the second is not. I spend so much time without getting nothing: in sum, how can I prove that
$$
\operatorname{Im}(f) \supseteq \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}\;?
$$