By Feynman’s Integration Technique
First of all, letting $ x\mapsto 1-x$ transforms the integral into
$$
I(a)=\int_0^1 \frac{\sin (a \ln x)}{\ln x}(1-x) d x
$$
Differentiating $I(a)$ w.r.t. $a$ yields
$$
I^{\prime}(a)=\int_0^1(1-x) \cos (a \ln x) d x
$$
Putting $y=-\ln x$ gives
$$
\begin{aligned}
I^{\prime}(a) & =\int_0^{\infty} e^{-y}\left(1-e^{-y}\right) \cos (a y) d y \\
& =\int_0^{\infty} e^{-y} \cos (a y) d y-\int_0^{\infty} e^{-2 y} \cos (a y) d y \\
& =\frac{1}{a^2+1}-\frac{2}{a^2+4}
\end{aligned}
$$
Integrating back, we have
$$
\begin{aligned}
\int_0^1 \frac{\sin [a \ln (1-x)]}{\ln (1-x)} \cdot x d x & =\int_0^a\left(\frac{1}{x^2+1}-\frac{2}{x^2+4}\right) d x \\
& =\tan ^{-1} a-\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{a}{2}\right) \\
& =\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{a}{a^2+2}\right)
\end{aligned}
$$