I'm trying to follow this proof for the one in the title above.
It is here, from page 3 for the only if portion.
What I don't get is why they introduce this:
$$ y = (1-\lambda_m)[\sum_{i=1}^m \frac{\lambda_i}{1-\lambda_m}y_i] + \lambda_m y_m$$
since with each sum, the outside $(1-\lambda_m)$ simply cancels out the denominator. Isn't it the same as writing out:
$ y = \sum_{i=1}^m \lambda_iy_i + \lambda_m y_m$ ?