I'm trying to understand the solution to this problem:https://i.stack.imgur.com/HOGDV.jpg. The solution states that the answer is $C$ and $D$, because if $-p(x)=p(y)$, then the equation of the values that satisfy the $-p(x)=p(y)$ must by symmetric with respect to$ y=-x$. I have 2 questions about this.
$1$. Why does the fact that $-p(x)=p(y)$ mean that the equation must be symmetrical over y=-x? Is this only true for polynomials, or is it true for any function?
$2$. Does the fact that $p(x)=p(y)$ mean that the equation must be symmetrical over y=x? Is this only true for polynomials, or is it true for any function?
Thanks in advance