I encountered the following post on a website (www.quora.com) I quote the post verbatim-these are not my comments.
"Why is the number "42" so significant to mathematicians?
It is for the very simple reason that: $$42^{\frac{382835430481}{625000000000}}=6{\prod}_{p\ {\rm{Prime}}}{\frac{1}{1-{\frac{1}{p^2}}}}.$$ This is a very deep result, whose impact we do not yet fully understand."
I do not believe that this identity is true. Here is my reasoning. The right hand side is $6{\zeta}(2)={\pi}^2$. The left hand side on the other hand is of the form $42^{\frac{m}{n}}$ where $m$ and $n$ are both positive integers. If such an identity were true than we would be forced to conclude (raising both sides to the $n$-th power) that $$42^{m}={\pi}^{2n}.$$This would imply that $\pi$ is an algebraic integer, being a root of the polynomial $f(x)= {x^{2n}}-42^{m}\in{{\bf Z}[x]}.$ But this contradicts the fact that $\pi$ is a transcendental number. Am I missing something here? The reason I ask is that the author of the post seems to think that I am mistaken, but refuses to furnish a reason! Appreciate your thoughts!
In either case, I think a good rule is “think before you comment”. Of course it is true, are you suggesting that my decades of work on this equality are erroneous?
– student Sep 02 '19 at 00:25