For median, it follows more or less directly from the assumption that within each group, the data are entirely evenly distributed. Basically the same assumption leads you to the calculation for the mean, so it shouldn't be too much of a stretch.
I don't really know about mode. I don't even know whether it makes that much sense to talk about mode for grouped data. With mean and median, you can at least have a decent idea of which group it's in. Not so much with mode. And I'm not entirely certain about the formula. But it does seem to choose a mode closer to the preceeding class if $f_0$ and $f_1$ are close, and a mode closer to the succeeding class if $f_1$ and $f_2$ are closer. Which is reasonable.