I would like to understand how Taylor expansion works on the unit sphere. Similar questions have already been asked here and here, but I did not quite understand the answers. What stopped me from understanding the answers was mostly my lack of knowledge about differential geometry and manifolds (I guess).
Maybe someone could guide me through an example.
Assume we are given a function $f: \mathbb{S}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$. To make it more precise I just assume a polynomial $f(x,y,z) = x^1y^2 z^3$.
Let $p$ be the north pole, e.g. $p=(0,0,1)^T$. Let $q$ be close to $p$ and given by $q=\epsilon \cdot (a,b,c)^T \in \mathbb{S}^2$ for $\epsilon$ small.
The previous answers were mentioning the tangent space, which, to my understanding, is the plane $\{(x,y,1) \text{ for } x,y \in\mathbb{R}\}$.
Now the part where I am unsure.
Do I simply compute $\partial_x f(x,y,z) = y^2z^3$ and $\partial_y f(x,y,z) = 2xyz^3$ And obtain $f(q) \approx f(p) + q_1\partial_x f(p) + q_2 \partial_y f(p)$ where $q_i$ represents the $i$-th entry of $q$. What about the difference in $z$? I somehow need to incorporate the curvature of my space, or (and maybe equivalently) the mapping from the sphere to the tangent space. How would this work? What would this mapping look like for the unit sphere?
Instead of $f(q) \approx f(p) + q_1\partial_x f(p) + q_2 \partial_y f(p)$, do I maybe have to use $f(q) \approx f(p) + \tilde{q}_1\partial_x f(p) + \tilde{q}_2 \partial_y f(p)$ where $\tilde{q}$ is the projection of $q$ onto the tangent space?