By definition of a martingale $\{Y_n\}$ with respect to to a sequence $\{X_n\}$,
$\text{E}(Y_{n+1}|X_1,\ldots,X_n) = Y_n$.
According to my teacher, it is also true that $\text{E}(Y_{n+a}|X_1,\ldots,X_n) = Y_n$, for any integer $a \geq 1$. (1)
This was not so clear to me, so I started to think about it and came up with:
$\text{E}(Y_{n+a}|X_1,\ldots,X_n) = \{\text{by definition of }Y_{n+a}\} = \text{E}( \text{E}(Y_{n+a+1}|X_1, \ldots, X_{n+a})|X_1,\ldots,X_k) = (\text{by the law of total expectation}) = \text{E}(Y_{n+a+1})$, which just made me more confused.
Any ideas on how to show that (1) is true?