For $\theta \in \left]0,\pi\right[$ and $n \in \mathbb{N}^{*}$, I'm asked whether the convergence of $$ a_n=\left(n! \prod_{k=1}^{n}\sin\left(\frac{\theta}{k}\right)\right)^{1/n} $$ What I've tried is to transform (if i'm right) $a_n$ into $$ \ln\left(a_n\right)=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\ln\left(k\sin\left(\frac{\theta}{k}\right)\right) $$ I've proven that $$ \ln\left(k\sin\left(\frac{\theta}{k}\right)\right)=\ln\left(\theta\right)-\frac{\theta^2}{6k^2}+o\left(\frac{1}{k^2}\right) $$ So I found convergence in the case $\theta=1$, but with divergence of the series when $\theta \ne 1$ I can't conclude about the convergence of $\ln\left(a_n\right)$.
Furthermore, is it possible to find the limit of $a_n$ ?