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Let $L$ be a map such that $L: \mathbb{R^2}\to \mathbb{R^2}$ given by $$L(x,y)=(x,-y)$$ In this question it is given that

$DL(0,0)$=$L(x,y)$

i am not getting this how this is true?.

Solution i tried-Given linear transformation is $L(x,y)=(x,-y)$,so its derivative at point $(x,y)$ will be $$ \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & -1 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x \\ y \end{bmatrix}=(x,-y) $$ which is again the same transformation . But as per option the point is $(0,0)$ so the derivative will be $0$.Does the option is wrong ?insted of $L(x,y)$ there is $L(0,0)$

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Just apply the definition of derivative. The derivative of a linear map at any point is exactly the linear map itself.