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It is a question from hyperbolic and inverse hyperbolic functions

Lutz Lehmann
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1 Answers1

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Apply the sine to both sides, use $\sin(x+k\pi)=(-1)^k\sin(x)=\sin((-1)^kx)$ to arrive at $$ \frac1{\sin x}=\sin\left(\frac\pi2+i\log(\cot\frac x2)\right)=\cosh(\log(\cot\frac x2))=\frac1{2}\left(e^{\log(\cot\frac x2)}+e^{-\log(\cot\frac x2)}\right) $$ so that in forward direction there are no contradictions. Now to go into the backwards direction you need to account for the branches of the inverse sine.

Lutz Lehmann
  • 126,666