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Question: Let $\{f_n\}$ be a sequence of continuous functions on $\mathbb{R}$. Let $f_n \to f$ uniformly on $\mathbb{R}$. Let $g_n(x):=f_n(x+\frac{1}{n})$ for $n=1,2,3,....$ Then $g_n \to f$ uniformly on any bounded interval $[a,b]$.

I think its apparent that the pointwise limit of the function $g_n$ is $f$.

I'm stuck trying to show this convergence is uniform on any bounded interval.

emka
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1 Answers1

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Hint 1: Decompose the problem into two easier questions: $$ g_n(x)-f(x)=f_n\left(x+\frac{1}{n}\right)-f\left(x+\frac{1}{n}\right)+f\left(x+\frac{1}{n}\right)-f(x). $$ Hint 2: Continuous implies uniformly continuous on compact intervals (Heine-Cantor).

Details: For all $x\in\mathbb{R}$ $$ \lvert f_n\left(x+\frac{1}{n}\right)-f\left(x+\frac{1}{n}\right)\rvert\leq \|f_n-f\|_\infty. $$ So the left hand side term of the sum above converges uniformly to $0$ on $\mathbb{R}$, a fortiori on $[a,b]$.

Now $f$ is continuous on $[a,b+1]$, so it is uniformly continuous on this compact interval. This means that for every $\epsilon>0$, there exists $\delta>0$ such that such that $|f(y)-f(x)|\leq \epsilon$ for all $x,y$ in $[a,b+1]$ such that $|x-y|\leq\delta$. Now take $N$ large enough to have $\frac{1}{N}\leq \delta$. Then for all $n\geq N$ and all $x\in [a,b]$, we have $|x+\frac{1}{n}-x|=\frac{1}{n}\leq\frac{1}{N}\leq\delta$ and $a\leq x<x+\frac{1}{n}\leq b+1$. So $$ \lvert f\left(x+\frac{1}{n}\right)-f(x) \rvert\leq \epsilon. $$ This proves that the right hand side of the sum above converges uniformly to $0$ on $[a,b]$.

So $g_n-f$, which is the sum of these two terms, converges uniformly to $0$ on $[a,b]$.

Julien
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  • I'm not sure how this relates to uniform convergence. – emka Mar 21 '13 at 03:27
  • @abet Well, it does. See the edit. – Julien Mar 21 '13 at 03:54
  • I'm not familiar with this notation $||f_n-f||_\infty$. Is that some sort of norm? – emka Mar 23 '13 at 19:29
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    @abet That's the uniform norm, indeed. It is $|g|\infty=\sup{x\in\mathbb{R}}|f(x)|$. By definition, $f_n$ converges to $f$ uniformly if $|f_n-f|_\infty$ tends to $0$. – Julien Mar 23 '13 at 22:31
  • I was trying to prove convergence uniformly on EVERY bounded interval than any. So what should be changed ? I am not very sure if any => every – Rusty Nov 02 '14 at 09:36