Solve the inhomogeneous Volterra integral equation and hence find its resolvent kernel : $$Y(t)=F(t)+\int_0^t (t^2-x^2)Y(x)dx$$
We know that if the kernel $K(t,x)$ is of the form $K(t-x)$, then it can be solved easily by using Laplace transform. But the given kernel is of the form $K(t^2-x^2)$. So we use the transformations $t^2=u$ and $x^2=v$. After transformation, the equation takes up the form $$Y(\sqrt{u})=F(\sqrt{u})+\int_0^u (u-v)Y(\sqrt{v})d(\sqrt{v}) \\ \implies Y(\sqrt{u})=F(\sqrt{u})+\int_0^u (u-v)\frac{Y(\sqrt{v})}{2\sqrt{v}}dv$$ Now if we use $Y(\sqrt{u})=y(u)$ and $F(\sqrt{u})=f(u)$ then we get $$y(u)=f(u)+\int_0^u \frac{u-v}{2\sqrt{v}}y(v)dv$$ and that's where I'm stuck. Because instead of the "nice" kernel $u-v$, we now have a somewhat "ugly" kernel $\displaystyle{\frac{u-v}{2\sqrt{v}}}$ which is not Laplace transformable. Can someone take a look what's happening here? Is the trasnformation I started with is wrong? If so, what's the general transformation for this type of kernel? Thanks in advance.