Is it true that for any discrete random variable ξ the equality holds: $F_{aξ + b} (x) = F_{ξ}(\frac{x− b}{a})$ $∀x, a, b ∈ R (a \ne 0).$
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what do you think? What have you tried? – Masacroso Sep 25 '19 at 15:03
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1If $F$ is the CDF, then just go to the definition and you can easily prove this. – antkam Sep 25 '19 at 15:03
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True not only for discrete but also for continuous random variables. – Jean Marie Sep 25 '19 at 16:36